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Assessment System Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) (Answers and Picture, i will update later Thank Kevin Turner Send it to me! ) 1 Refer to the exhibit. This switch is to be added to the production network.
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ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) (Mar 22 2010)
CCNA2 Final Mar 2010:
CCNA Cisco Routing Protocols and Concepts Final Exam Practice
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1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain
2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM
4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
6
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
The static route will not work correctly
6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1
7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path
8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?
router R1 Fa0/0 interface
router R2 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only
11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco901
17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
LAN switch
hub
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.
20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
Change the routing metric for that route.
Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
Change the administrative distance for that route.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?
A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface
25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24
26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server
29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
private IP addressing
advertising default routes
summarization on major network boundaries
30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18
31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used
33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down
34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
A(config)# no router rip
35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.
36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command
40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?
The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface
44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs
45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
administrative distance mismatch
no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed
47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?
Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.
50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?
Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR
CCNA3 Final – 04 March 2010
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1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.
A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
BID
LSA
LSU
BPDU
15
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
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16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.
What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
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31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
http://www.ccna4u.org 39
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
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46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
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