CCNA Question & Answers Blog 640 - 802 - CCNA Answers
CCNA, CCNP,CCNSP....CCIE... CCNA Answers
1.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.ccnafinal.net
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 [Read more...]
1.
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 [Read more...]
1.
Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router’s console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds [Read more...]
1.
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame. [Read more...]
1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable
2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F
3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router
4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical
6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable
11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
* (Third one is the correct one)
13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic
14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8
16 [Read more...]
1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **
2.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28
5.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.
6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
14. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
15. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
16. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
17. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
18. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radi
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
21. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops
1.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using three client sessions.
The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037. [Read more...]
Updated 2011 100%
www.ccnafinal.net
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport
15.
ccna 1 chapter 3 answers 100%
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service