EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)
1

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

ccna 4 final 2012

interface reset

unplugged cable

improper LMI type

PPP negotiation failure

2

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

ccna 4 final 2012

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

3
Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM

Frame Relay

HDLC

PPP

SDLC

4

Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

ccna 4 final 2012

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

5
Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

6

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

7
Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

8
A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

9

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?

ccna 4 final 2012

ATM

VPN

ISDN

Frame Relay

broadband DSL

10
Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

11
A company is deciding which WAN connection type it should implement between its main office and branch offices. The company wants to use a cost-effective service that provides virtual circuits between each office. The company also wants to be able to transmit variable-length packets on these circuits. Which solution best meets these requirements?

ATM

HDLC

ISDN

Frame Relay

12
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?

Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.

Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.

Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.

Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123

DLCI 321

10.10.10.25

10.10.10.26

MAC address of the Orlando router

14

Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

The VTY lines are not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The username and password are not configured correctly.

15
Which two devices can be used by teleworkers who need to connect to the company network across the PSTN for a few hours a day? (Choose two.)

router

CSU/DSU

DSL modem

cable modem

access server

dialup modem

16
An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.

Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

17
What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?

to restrict access to only authorized users

to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console

to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms

to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network

18

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

19
When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?

LCP

LMI

DLCI

Inverse ARP

20
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

21
A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

reduced jitter

reduced costs

reduced latency

the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

22
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

23

Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.

The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.

The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.

The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

24

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

25
What three questions can be answered using data gathered from a baseline on a new network? (Choose three.)

Are areas of the network experiencing high error rates?

Will the disaster recovery procedures work correctly?

What parts of the network have the highest volume?

Does the organization require more network technicians?

How does the network perform during peak periods?

Are there any devices working at top capacity?

What networks are the most susceptible to security attacks?

26
Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended

reflexive

standard

time-based

27

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?

10.1.1.2:80

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

28
An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?

Serial0/1/0 is administratively down

Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up

Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down

Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

29
A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?

Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

30

Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.

The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

31

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN will carry untagged traffic on FastEthernet 0/1?

VLAN 1

VLAN 2

VLAN 11

VLAN 12

VLAN 30

VLAN 999

32
What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?

A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.

A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.

A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.

An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

33
Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop

DTE cable on router

demarcation point

demilitarized zone

34

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.

The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.

The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.

A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.

35
Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

PAP uses a two-way handshake.

The password is unique and random.

PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

36
Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

37
Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE

DE

CIR

CBIR

38
Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet

39

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured as a routing protocol on the network. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network should have full access to the web server that is connected to 192.168.3.0/24 but should not be allowed to telnet to router R3. Verifying the configuration, the network administrator realizes that users on network 192.168.1.0/24 can successfully telnet to the router. What should be done to remedy the problem?

The ACL 101 statements 10 and 20 should be reversed.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the inbound direction.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the outbound direction.

The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 Serial0/0/1 interface in the outbound direction.

The ACL 101 statement 10 should be changed to: permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any

40
What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?

addresses that are to be translated

addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool

addresses that are allowed out of the router

addresses that are accessible from the inside network

41
Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7

172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

42
Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

antivirus application

operating system patches

intrusion prevention system

Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

43

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?

failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled

failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet

a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes

a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

44

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

45
A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only accepted from and forwarded to SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

All traffic that enters the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

The router is tested for any potential security problems and all recommended security-related configuration changes will be automatically applied.

46

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM

PPP

HDLC

SLIP

47
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which two suggestions should the administrator provide? (Choose two.)

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.

Place standard ACLs as close to the destination as possible.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces require fewer router resources.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

49
What are three important reasons to establish a network baseline? (Choose three.)

to determine the time it takes for the network to self recover from a failure

to determine which areas in the network are underutilized or overutilized

to determine the performance of the network during the normal hours of operation

to determine what thresholds should be set for the devices that need to be monitored

to determine the areas in the network which should not be included in the monitoring process

to determine the number of users whose access to network resources should be restricted

50
Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

51
While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?

application layer

network layer

data link layer

physical layer

52

Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?

The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test.

The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router.

The key chains are given the same name on both routers.

The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.

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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 receives a packet for destination 192.168.1.10. Which route will be preferred for this packet?
	through the Fa0/0 interface
	through the Fa0/1 interface
	through the S0/0/0 interface
	through the S0/0/1 interface

Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are level 1 ultimate routes? (Choose two.)
	10.0.0.0
	10.1.2.0
	10.2.2.0
	10.1.1.0
	192.168.1.0
	192.168.2.0

Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
	Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
	Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.
	Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.
	Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 has been used as a routing protocol on the network. A new 172.16.2.0/24 network has been added on router R2 and configured under the RIP routing process. When will R1 converge?
after 13 seconds
after 30 seconds
after 180 seconds
after R1 receives triggered updates from R2

Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
	Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
	All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
	Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
	Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
	An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
	Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route in the routing table of R1 will be discarded by its neighboring router?
	192.168.2.0
	192.168.3.0
	192.168.4.0
	192.168.9.0
	192.168.10.0
	192.168.11.0

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output in the exhibit, why can users establish a console connection to this router without entering a password?
The login command was not entered on the console line.
The enable password should be an enable secret password.
No username and password combination has been configured.
Console connections cannot be configured to require users to provide passwords.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to configure a router by copying and pasting the commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, only one of the FastEthernet interfaces is coming up. What is the problem?
Both interfaces are in the same IP subnet.
FastEthernet0/1 does not have a description.
There can be only one FastEthernet interface enabled on a router at one time.
The administrator did not exit to global configuration mode before configuring FastEthernet0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1. R1(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2 What is the result of running this command?
	Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
	This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
	Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
	The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.
A default route must be configured on every router.
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show running-config output, which option correctly reflects the routes that will be listed in the R2 routing table?

Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
	Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
	Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
	Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
	Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask can be used to meet the 24 host requirement of the LAN that is attached to Router3?
192.168.0.0/27
192.168.0.64/26
192.168.0.192/26
192.168.0.192/27

Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
	192.168.135.1
	192.168.142.1
	192.168.144.1
	192.168.128.1

A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used?
Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network.
Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address.
The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address.
Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.

Which range of IP addresses will be used by RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF routing protocols to send routing advertisements?

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.

Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
holddown timers
split horizon

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are both configured with RIPv1. Beginning from global configuration mode, what comand or commands will eliminate RIP updates on the Ethernet segment of R2?
	R2# configure terminal R2(config)# router rip R2(config-router)# passive-interface FastEthernet0/0
	R2# configure terminal R2(config)# passive-interface FastEthernet0/0
	R2# passive-interface FastEthernet0/0
	R2# configure terminal R2(config)# interface FastEthernet0/0 R2(config-if)# passive-interface FastEthernet0/0

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with RIPv2 active on all interfaces. Automatic summarization is in effect. Why does the routing table on R3 include the 209.165.200.228/30 network but not the 172.30.1.0/24 and 172.30.2.0/24 networks?
CIDR is required to route supernets.
There is no default gateway configured.
The 172.30.0.0/16 subnets are discontiguous.
RIPv2 cannot route networks with variable subnets.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
All routes are stable.
Each route has one feasible successor.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is having problems accessing server A. All routers have the same EIGRP configuration as router RTR_A. What should be done so that host A can access server A?
Add the command no auto-summary on all routers.
Change the network statements to include a wildcard mask.
Adjust the EIGRP hello timers to account for the network delay.
Add the command eigrp log-neighbor-changes on all routers.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.

Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to
the Fa0/0 interface.
Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP
address on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command: network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
	FastEthernet0/0
	FastEthernet0/1
	Serial0/0/0
	Serial0/0/1

Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
They are used to determine the complete network topology.
They are used with timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.

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Cisco Packet Tracer Software Downloads
Packet Tracer Version 5.3 2 Software Downloads
Packet Tracer version 5.3.2 is a maintenance release that fixes functional and technical issues in the previous versions. It replaces Packet Tracer version 5.3.1
Packet Tracer 5.3 2 supports activities authored in Packet Tracer 4.0, 4.1, 4.11, 5.0, 5.1, 5.2.x , and 5.3.x Please note that the last two courses of the CCNA Discovery and CCNA Exploration curricula require Packet Tracer version 4.11 at a minimum, CCNA Security requires version 5.2 at a minimum, and the beta Packet Tracer Skills Based Assessments require version 5.2.1 at a minimum. The curricula are fully compatible with Packet Tracer 5.3.2
You can download both the Packet Tracer application and tutorial files in one download package. However, due to the large file size it is faster to download the application by itself, if that is all you need. Choose the download option appropriate for your needs.

Windows:

Title Document Type Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Windows 2000, XP and Vista. (EXE – 80 MB) Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Windows 2000, XP and Vista. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer. (EXE – 47 MB)

Linux:
Use Firefox to download the Linux.bin files as Internet Explorer doesn’t load them correctly.
To install the Linux BIN packages, set the permission to be executable (chmod +x PacketTracer52_*.bin) then execute the binary in the terminal.

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Linux-Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Ubuntu release 7.10.	(BIN – 101 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only Linux-Ubuntu This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Ubuntu release 7.10. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 68 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial – Generic Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Ubuntu	(tar.gz – 102 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Linux-Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Fedora release 7.	(BIN – 98 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only Linux-Fedora This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Fedora release 7. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 65 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Generic Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Fedora	(tar.gz – 99 MB)

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1
Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
2
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

3
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?

Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
Configure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

5
Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?
The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test.
The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router.
The key chains are given the same name on both routers.
The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.
6
What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing

7
Which network component has the primary function of detecting and logging attacks made against the network?
Cisco Security Agent
antivirus software scanner
intrusion detection system
intrusion prevention system

8

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been called in to resolve a problem with this network segment. The symptoms include a loss of connectivity throughout the network segment, high link utilization, and syslog messages that indicate constant MAC address relearning. What is the likely cause of these symptoms?

cable fault

faulty NIC card

IP addressing error

spanning tree problem

NAT configuration error

9
Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

10

Refer to the exhibit. To reach R2, and for configuring Frame Relay on the point-to-point interfaces shown in the graphic, which DLCI should be used in the frame-relay interface-dlci command that is issued on R1?

100

101

200

201

11
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are described by the output of the debug ip nat command? (Choose two.)

A packet from 192.168.1.2 has been translated using NAT overload.

The * indicates that the NAT translation was unsuccessful and the packet was dropped.

A packet from 192.31.7.2 has been translated by NAT and forwarded to a destination address of 198.133.219.2.

A packet from 192.31.7.2 has been sent to 198.133.219.2, which was then translated to the destination 192.168.1.2

A packet from 192.168.1.2 has been translated by NAT to a source address of 198.133.219.2 and forwarded to the destination 192.31.7.2.

13

Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.

There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

14
Which Layer 2 access method separates traffic into time slots and is specified by DOCSIS for use with cable high speed Internet service?

TDMA

FDMA

CDMA

S-CDMA

15

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM

PPP

HDLC

SLIP

16
Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

PAP uses a two-way handshake.

The password is unique and random.

PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

17
What is a common use of a TFTP server?

to allow access to restricted system resources

to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console

to provide active defense mechanisms that prevent attacks against the network

to perform IOS image and configuration uploads and downloads over the network

18

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

19
What is the result when the command security passwords min-length 8 is entered into a router?

All new passwords are required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.

All current passwords are now required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.

Enable passwords must be at least 8 characters but line passwords are unaffected.

Nothing will happen until the command service password-encryption is entered. Then all future passwords must have a minimum of 8 characters.

20
After troubleshooting a LAN, a network technician has determined that network performance has been severely impacted by the attenuation of the bit stream. Which physical layer condition led the technician to this conclusion?

There is an excessive amount of EMI on the physical media.

The amplitude of the physical layer data has been significantly reduced.

There is an open conductor between the endpoints on the physical media.

The maximum allowed clock rate on the physical media has been exceeded.

21
A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

reduced jitter

reduced costs

reduced latency

the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

22
Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The term “inbound” refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

23
A network technician wants to implement SSH as the means by which a router may be managed remotely. What are two procedures that the technician should use to successfully complete this task? (Choose two.)

Configure the login banner.

Configure authentication.

Define the asymmetrical keys.

Configure the console password.

Enter the service password-encryption command.

24
Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

HDLC

PPP

SLIP

PAP

CHAP

25
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

26

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access list must still permit the 192.168.1.0/24 network access to the 192.168.2.0 network. On which router interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound

interface Fa0/0, outbound

interface S0/0/0, inbound

interface S0/0/0, outbound

27

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.

A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.

The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.

Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

28

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

29
An administrator attempts to telnet into a remote device and receives the error “Password required but none set”. How can the administrator resolve this issue?

Set the enable secret command on the remote router.

Set the login command on the vty lines on the remote router.

Set the password command on the vty lines on the remote router.

Enable the service password-encryption command on the remote router.

30

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

31
Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?

flow control

error control

authentication

synchronous communication

32

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is teaching a trainee to interpret the results of various Frame Relay troubleshooting commands. What conclusion can be drawn from the output that is shown?

Neighboring routers should use DLCI 177 to reach the Branch router.

DLCI 177 will be used to identify all broadcasts that are sent out the Branch router.

The Branch router has the address 192.168.3.1 configured for the S0/0/0 interface.

To reach 192.168.3.1, the Branch router will use the virtual circuit that is identified by DLCI 177.

33

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?

/19

/20

/21

/22

/23

/24

34
A network administrator uses the 3DES algorithm to encrypt traffic that crosses a VPN. Which VPN characteristic is being configured?

authentication

authorization

data integrity

data confidentiality

35
Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.

A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.

A wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.

A wildcard mask uses a “1″ to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

36

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.

They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.

They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.

They support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

37
When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list

routing protocol

inbound interface

ARP cache

38
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

39
Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3

172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7

172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

40
When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer

to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses

to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers

to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

41
Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

antivirus application

operating system patches

intrusion prevention system

Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

42
What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?

to restrict access to only authorized users

to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console

to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms

to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network

43
Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

44
An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?

cracking

phishing

phreaking

spamming

45

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.

The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.

The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.

A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.

46
Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP

SLIP

HDLC

Frame Relay

47
What name is given to the location where a customer network interfaces with a network that is owned by another organization?

CPE

DCE

local loop

demarcation point

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which option displays the correct ACL that would need to be applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2 in order to permit any type of network traffic and block all FTP traffic coming from hosts on the 172.16.10.0/24 network going to the Internet?

49

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.

Verify that the TFTP server software is running.

Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.

Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

50
A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

51
Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS

latency

reliability

confidentiality

52
Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

Exam Results – EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN – Version 4.0

Date Exam was Taken: 16/05/2011

Domain Knowledge – Weighted Score
Max Points:     100
Earned Points:     90
Percentage:     90.0%

Personalized Feedback has been generated based on your responses to this exam. Click Here to view your Personalized Feedback
Domain Knowledge – Binary Score
Max Points:     50
Earned Points:     44
Percentage:     88.0%

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2.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.3/29

192.168.4.15/29
192.168.4.65/26
192.168.4.255/24

3.

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
84
180

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
next hop router interface
subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v1
RIP v2
EIGRP
BGP
STP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

9.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.
There are no routes back to networks connected to R1 from R2.
There is a Layer 2 problem between R2 and host B.
Host B has a defective Ethernet card.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.252 for QA
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA
255.255.255.248 for QA
255.255.255.0 for Sales

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21
192.168.0.0/20

12

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
/26

13.

Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.1.5/30
192.168.2.17/28
192.168.2.63/27
192.168.2.130/25

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
none
8
16
24

15.

Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
6
14
29
34
40
62

16.

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28

17. What is a supernet?
the network for a default route
a summarization of classful addresses
a network that contains both private and public addresses
a set of discontiguous networks that are controlled by an ISP

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets will not have enough host addresses for the given network requirements.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.
The router will support the addressing scheme.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.32.0/24
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.47.0/24
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.48.0/24
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.63.0/24

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
VLSM
CIDR
private IP addresses
classful routing

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
none
8
16
24

22.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from R1 to Host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from Host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from Host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to Host B….successful
23. What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to Host B?
Host B has a defective Ethernet card.
The default gateway on Host B is not correctly set.
There is a Layer 2 problem between R2 and Host B.
R2 does not have routes back to networks connected to R1.

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2.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
A gateway of last resort is required.
Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 255.255.255.255.
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.
Both version 1 and version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.
Both version 1 and version 2 updates are sent to 255.255.255.255.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The routing table is limited to 2 routes.
The LAN interfaces are participating in the routing process.
One update has been sent out of each serial interface and 2 have been received.
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports more than 16 routers.
RIP version 2 supports classful (and not classless) routing.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.
RIP version 2 supports multi-areas.
RIP version 2 uses the Dijkstra algorithm rather than the Bellman-Ford algorithm.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
The network statements are configured incorrectly.
A routing loop has been created.
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.
RIPv1 is unable to route networks with a /24 subnet mask.

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
prevents Router1 from forwarding updates about networks that are not directly connected
causes all routers in the network to synchronize routing updates with Router1
forces Router1 to become the primary or designated router (DR) for updates
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:

Sanford(config)# interface loopback1

Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252 Why does the router respond with an error?
The router does not allow loopback interface configurations.
This mask can not be used with this class of addresses.
Classless routing must be configured before this address can be added.
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
The router is over the limit for the maximum paths that can be provided in the routing table.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops
16 hops
100 hops
120 hops
255 hops

10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
identifies the hosts addresses that can be summarized in the network
used to list all addresses for remote and local networks
determines which subnet mask to apply to routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
Routes to the 10.16.1.0/27, 10.16.1.64/27, and 10.16.1.128/27 networks are added.
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.
A third route to the 10.0.0.0/8 network with RIPv1 as the source is added.
The 10.0.0.0/8 route is dropped immediately from the routing table after router B is configured.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 does not send subnet masks in its updates.
Router A is not setup with RIP as a routing protocol.
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.
Router B is not setup to advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Subnet masks will be added to the routing updates.
Routing updates will be sent out using multicast address 224.0.0.9.
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.
The RIP routing process will be removed from the router and routing updates will not be forwarded.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Enable split horizon in the network.
Configure RIPv2 on routers.
Add network 192.168.1.0 to the RIP configuration on the JAX router.
Configure JAX Fa0/0 as a passive interface.
Enable the Serial0/0/0 interface on the JAX router.
Change the IP address on the Fa0/0 interface of the JAX router to 192.168.1.1/24.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
subnet mask
destination port number
address family identifier
source and destination IP addresses

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router1(config)# ip classless
Router1(config-router)# no passive-interface serial 0/1/1
Router2(config-router)# version 2
Router2(config-router)# neighbor 10.0.0.2

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/24
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.16.0/24
Router2 will install a route to 192.168.16.0/24
Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
The JAX router will ignore updates for the 172.16.0.0/16 network due to split horizon issues.
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.
The routing table for CHI will have the 192.168.0.0/16 route but it will have an S next to the route.
The ORL router will apply a 255.255.0.0 subnet mask to all networks in the routing updates it forwards.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config)# ip classless
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0
Router1(config-router)# no passive-interface serial 0/1/1
Router2(config-router)# version 2
Router2(config-router)# neighbor 10.0.0.2

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2. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
172.16.1.0/22
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

3.

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

6. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1 Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2 Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1 Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2 Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1 WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1 Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1 Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2 Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
show arp
traceroute
show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail

10.

Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1 R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

11. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
load
platform
reliability
holdtime
local interface

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

14. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

15. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

16. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

17. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
Serial0/1 is shutdown.
There is no cable connecting the routers.
The remote router is using serial 0/0.
No clock rate has been set.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

19. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
the serial port of the router
a modem
a switch
the ethernet port of the router
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device

20.

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
It creates a topology map of the entire network.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface speed and duplex
Interface MTU
Errors
Interface MAC address
Interface IP address

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Refer to the exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

2. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

3. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP

4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

5. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.
A common metric is used by all routing protocols.
The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.
The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
The IP address of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is incorrect.
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.

11. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM
SDRAM

12. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.

13. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
RIPv2

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

17.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

/>A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.
The default route is configured incorrectly.
The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.
Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

20. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
the path learned via RIP
the path with the highest metric value
both paths with load balancing

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the convergence time measured in seconds.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

23. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.

24. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.
It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.
It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1

26. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18
172.24.127.254/18

27. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
It is flagged as active in the routing table.
After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.

28. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.1.48 /28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/26

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
The static route will not work correctly.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?
The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.
A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.
The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.

31. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

32. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.
The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.

33. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.
Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.

34. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24

35. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
It is a link-state routing proto
col.
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.
It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.
It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.

36. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.
There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.
The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem?
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.
Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.

38. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

39.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

40. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

41. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

42. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

43. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.1.0/22

45. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4

47.

Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

48. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

49. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.
Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.
Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.

50. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.
The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.
The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.

51. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a defaul
t route.
No default route has been configured.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
split horizon
hold-down timers
route poisoning
triggered updates

53. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.

54. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1.

55. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

56. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The IOS image is corrupt.
Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
The POST process has detected hardware failure.

57. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
3
4
5
7

58. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.
Six devices are up and running on the network.
Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.

59. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF

60. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

61. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
Include the default-information originate command.
Include the no auto-summary command.
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.
Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.

62.

Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.

63. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.
If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.
If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.

64. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

65.

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

66. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.
R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.
R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.
Autosummarization must be enabled.

67. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

68. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM – loads the bo
otstrap
RAM – stores the operating system
Flash – executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
ROM – stores the backup configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

69. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It displays an actual map of the network topology.
It offers rapid convergence in large networks.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.
It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.

70. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device
a DCE device
a crossover cable
a V.35 cable

71. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.
It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

72. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.
A default route must be configured on every router.
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

73. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901

74. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

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